|Should ValueSpecification be really a TypedElement? [message #626758]
||Thu, 03 July 2008 12:42
| Timothy Marc
Registered: July 2009
after studying the values and instances concepts of the UML2 superstructure,
i was wondering that a ValueSpecification is also inhereting TypedElement.
What's the main reason for this? In the case of being a
LiteralSpecification, its type is directly combined with the value argument.
In the case of beeing a InstanceValue, the instance references a
InstanceSpecification, that points to a concrete classifier.
IMHO, there is no sense in defining the ValueSpecification as a
TypedElement, or is it for the enhancing mechanism of the metamodel?
Hope, this question isn't too silly.
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